Jennybobenny
08-15-2007, 04:31 AM
In 1987 an unmarried couple with a baby on the way move in together. He purchases a home, and her name is put on the title of the home. She moves out and takes the child with her 4 years later. The couple never reconciled. She has not made any payments on the home. The value of the home has tripled+++ since she moved out.When the home is sold, is she entitled to 1/2 of the proceeds? She has not contributed 1 cent towards the purchase of the home and they never married....Any clues?This is in California...
whitneymagnolia
08-15-2007, 10:13 AM
If it is a community property state, she gets 1/2. They bought together... her name is on title. An attorney would be a better answerer and it depends on the state. Why the riddle? This is a SERIOUS matter.
ticketoride05
08-16-2007, 09:38 PM
Fe Fi Mo Manna, You Bet You Get 1/2 Unless It Is Contested In A Civil Suit.the Place Will Never Close Escrow Without You Signing Off And You Getting Your Share.tell The Escrow Officer You Have Instructions For Her And You Want The Check For Your Half At Close Of Escrow
nihanaksoy2003
08-17-2007, 03:00 AM
Hello There,I do real estate in Dubai, so im not really familiar how things are goes USA.But according to Dubai Low, if the names of the partners mentioned on the property Legal contract (such as husband and wife or friends) each one of them are title to get 50/50. But again, she is legaly have the right to get 50% of the value of the property, if the child has the father surname.